This page is meant for people looking for information regarding the American Council on Exercise (ACE) personal trainer certification, specifically, ACE study materials, and ideally, those who would like to know more about the certification exam with this free ACE-CPT test.
I’ll cover test prep materials, and ACE certification exam practice questions looking in-depth at:
The time and exam requirements for this certification
The questioning styles used for the exam questions
ACE certification exam practice questions with ACE practice exam answers
Some helpful rationale for eliminating answers to multiple-choice questions
Exam difficulty and the training program offered by ACE
We assure you that this ACE exam practice test will assist you in learning more about the styles of questions within the personal training certification exam. So make sure to bookmark this page.
Don’t forget to download my 16-step ACE-CPT exam preparation checklist to ensure that you pass the test.
Welcome to your ACE personal training practice exam!
This is useful to study for the ACE, or The American Council on Exercise, personal trainer certification exam.
Also, it partners well with the ACE-CPT study guide, and your American Council on Exercise Personal Trainer Manual, 5th Edition.
Remember, the ACE-CPT material is accredited by the National Commission for Certifying Agencies (NCCA), and NCCA-accredited certifications are the most sought after and highly respected by employers.
Here are some other high-quality, accredited personal trainer certifications:
Similar to ACE, you may find access to study materials from these certification providers, like the NASM study guide and the NASM practice test.
Keep in mind the at ACE CPT exam has a current pass rate of 65%, so, it comes in as a tad more difficult than the personal training and group fitness instructor certifications from other companies such as the above.
To ensure that you make it into 65% of passes, you should use this ACE fitness exam review.
A lot of people find the ACE exam challenging and possibly overwhelming when they come in without exercise science experience.
So it is important for these ACE certification exam practice questions to exist.
This can be thought of as an ACE review in a way.
When going through this ACE personal trainer practice test, note that I split it into the four domains that you will be tested on, so you might see similarities within these domain questions.
So what does the layout look like for these comprehensive ACE certification exam practice questions?
You’ll notice there will be 10 questions per domain, and the goal is for you to answer them on your own.
Then, you may use the accordion accompanying each question to see the purpose behind the answer or to confirm your answer is correct.
Remember, cheaters never win and true winners never cheat!
Domain 1: Client Interviews and Assessments
This domain will represent 23% of the exam or around 35 total questions.
These ACE personal trainer practice test questions cover the obtainment of lifestyle, health, exercise, and medical/healthcare information from your clients in order to determine the risk they may have when participating in exercise programs.
The ACE personal trainer practice exam will also go over the ability for assessing the readiness of clients to change their behaviors and evaluation of their attitude to exercise in order to build rapport and establish their goals.
There will also be significant questions on the movement assessments and the observations used for making the right exercise program in order to enhance function, health, fitness, and performance.
The last major thing to know in this domain of ACE personal training exam practice is the baseline physiological assessments and nutrition information.
10 Questions and explanations from Domain 1
Why would the prime mover of the gluteals become dormant during hip extension and allow the hamstrings to become the prime mover? A) Reciprocal inhibition B) Hypertonicity C) Synergistic dominance D) Co-contraction
The Correct Answer is C
Reasoning:
So, the gluteals are the agonist of the hip extension. We should then think of what other muscles are involved, and how they are involved.
The Hamstrings are mentioned next and we might know automatically that these are going to be a synergist in the movement.
But, if we do not know that, then we should start by remembering the definitions for these terms.
Reciprocal Inhibition is a neuromuscular reflex that inhibits opposing muscles during movement. It can be more involved in stretching actively. So, A is wrong.
Hypertonicity is a condition characterized by the presence of a lesser degree of tone or tension. So, this could potentially relate to the gluteal muscles, but it is not specific enough regarding the hamstrings taking over. So, B is wrong.
The co-contraction is defined as a simultaneously contraction of two or more muscles around a joint and it is a determinant factor to the evaluation of motor control. so, while this relates to muscle synergism, it again does not claim one is taking over. So, D is wrong.
This leaves C, which the definition for synergistic dominance is when the synergistic muscle is specifically taking over the agonist muscle. Had we not known the definition, or that the hamstrings are a synergist, then we would need to go through each answer in this format.
Which postural deviation is your client experiencing if she has a lateral spinal curvature? A) Scoliosis B) Lordosis C) Sway-Back D) Kyphosis
The correct answer is A
Reasoning:
This question looks at the various postural deviations and requires you to know each of them. B is wrong, as Lordosis is an excessive inward curve of the spine.
C is wrong, as Sway-Back posture is an increase in the posterior tilt of the pelvis and the trunk and thoracic kyphosis in comparison to a neutral posture.
D is wrong, as Kyphosis posture is an excessive outward curve of the spine that results in an abnormal rounding of the upper back.
So, these three wrong answers all involve curves that are not lateral, so this then would leave scoliosis as the answer. A is the correct answer.
When starting an exercise program with your client, you have determined that he checked “yes” to 4 risk factors on the Health Questionnaire. What is the next step in the training process? A) Ask to speak to his physician to obtain approval for exercise. B) Apologize to the client and let him know that you can’t train him since he has 3 or more risk factors. C) Give your client a form to be signed by his physician. D) Design adaptive exercises that will work around his risks.
The correct answer is C
Reasoning:
This question requires you to know the number of risk factors that require a physician to sign off on exercise.
We know that A is wrong, as we will never truly be required to speak directly with someone’s medical doctor.
For B, we know that we don’t automatically write off someone’s ability to be trained, and the risk factors needed for this “classification”, is actually 2.
D, while it is someone right to design something to not put the client at risk, it is not truly the exercises that should be adapted, but more so the intensity.
This leaves C as the correct answer, and here you will give your client a form to be signed by the physician if they see the exercise as ok for the client to participate in.
In which of these assessments can a personal trainer determine possible movement compensations that are associated with poor posture? A) Balance and core assessments B) Static postural assessments C) Body composition assessments D) Movement screens
The correct answer is B
Reasoning:
This question looks at the movement compensations and how they may be associated with posture problems.
When going through the answers, we can eliminate A and C, as they don’t relate to posture or movements.
Then we can eliminate D, as movement screens will not look at posture really. They would be a good answer, had the correct answer not been there.
The correct answer is B. The static postural assessments are going to look at the posture of the client and the potential movement compensations that are then associated with the deviations.
Which antihypertensive medication could be preventing your client’s heart rate from increasing? A) Angiotensin-II receptor antagonists B) Diuretics C) Angiotensin-converting enzyme Inhibitors D) Beta-blockers
The correct answer is D
Reasoning:
This question requires us to know the chart 5-1 in chapter 5 with all of the medications in it. With this chart, we see that the Beta-blockers are going to be the only ones that cause a for sure decrease in the exercising heart rate and the resting heart rate.
The Beta-blockers also have been known to cause decreases in the Exercise capacity and are noted as having a dose-related response.
So, with all of this, we know that D is the correct answer.
Libby is 25 years old and wants to lose weight and improve her lower body strength. Which of these is an example of an effective SMART goal for Libby? A) Libby will eat healthier within two weeks. B) Libby will complete 30 bodyweight squats in two minutes in one week. C) Libby will lose 5 lbs… D) Libby will complete 30 squats in two minutes.
The correct answer is B
Reasoning:
This question asks us to know what makes a SMART goal, and how we apply that to a real-life goal scenario with your clients.
SMART goals are going to be the goals we set that are Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-bound.
A is going to be wrong, as eating healthier is too general and lacks the first part of a SMART goal, which is specificity.
C is going to be wrong, as it lacks time-bound and specific, but it is relevant and probably achievable.
D will also be wrong for lacking specificity and time-bound.
The correct answer is B, as this is the most specific, time-bound, and measurable. these are the three varying the most throughout the answers. Most of them do pass for relevance and achievability, although achievability requires more knowledge into the clients.
What effect would you expect to see on her heart rate response during exercise, when a client is on a diuretic? A) Exercising heart rate down B) No significant change C) Resting heart rate down D) Resting heart rate up
The correct answer is B
Reasoning:
This requires us to know the information on medications in chapter 5.
Here we see that diuretics are known t cause effects on the balance of electrolytes and water in the body, but when it comes to the effects on heart rate, they are not seen to have any primary effects.
This would lead to the correct answer being B.
A way we may remember this is that these are prescribed generally for high blood pressure individuals or those that accumulate excessive fluid, like with congestive heart failure. Diuretics are meant to affect volumes of liquid in the body primarily.
What stage of learning is a client in when they are trying to understand how to perform a squat after you’ve explained the skill? A) Cognitive stage of learning B) Autonomous stage of learning C) Feedback stage of learning D) Associative stage of learning
The correct answer is A
Reasoning:
This question is regarding the stages of motor learning and is found in chapter 4.
The stages in order are the Cognitive, Associative, and the Autonomous stages.
This removes answer C, as it is not an actual stage of learning.
We then look at the answer B, and autonomous stage is the final stage where we have mastered the skills and they re one naturally, with the client getting less teaching, and for the most part just observations from the trainer.
Then, answer D, the associative stage is where the basics are mastered and the feedback given to clients is to be more for refinement of the skills.
The correct answer, A, is the cognitive stage, this is the first stage and where the client is learning the skill initially. It starts after being shown and explained how the client should do a movement.
A new client has metabolic syndrome. He is cleared for exercise by his physician. Which of these recommendations is best to begin training your new client? A) Clients should begin with 500 minutes total for the week. B) Low impact activities. Twice a week of resistance training. C) Clients should exercise 7 days a week with low intensity. D) Moderate impact activities. No resistance training.
The correct answer is B
Reasoning:
This question requires knowledge of chapter 13 on clients with chronic diseases present. we need to know the recommendations for those with metabolic disease, both muscular and cardiorespiratory guidelines.
Answer A can be eliminated, as 500 minutes is too large of a set time for anyone starting exercise, especially someone with metabolic disease.
Answer C, should instead say 5 days if talking about cardiorespiratory, and 2-3 days if talking about muscular training in order to be correct.
Answer D can be marked off, due to resistance training actually being recommended, albeit light levels of it when starting.
The correct answer is B, as the guidelines state that low impact is recommended and then somewhere from 2 – 3 days. So, this fits perfectly.
Bryan is a man who is 45 years old who stopped smoking 2 months ago. Bryan hasn’t participated in an exercise program in the last 2 years. His BMI is 32. What are the exercise testing recommendations according to risk stratification based on his cardiovascular disease risk factors? A) Low risk, medical exam not necessary. B) Moderate risk, medical exam necessary before vigorous exercise. C) Moderate risk, doctor’s supervision needed. D) High risk, medical exam before moderate exercise.
The correct answer is B
Reasoning:
This question asks you to know the CVD risk factors and to be able to point out which ones are positive for Brian.
When we break this down, he gets a total of four risk factors.
The first risk factor is his age being 45 years. A male 45 or older gets a risk factor.
Smoking is the second risk factor, as he has quit in the last 6 months.
Brian has not participated in a program for exercise in 2 years. this gives him another risk factor.
His BMI is over 30, so he has a risk factor there. that is the fourth and final on we know about.
These four risk factors come together to give Brian a moderate-risk classification for CVD. So, based on that, he would be ok to participate in the exercise, except for vigorous intensities, where he would need a doctor’s permission before entering. The correct answer is B.
Domain 2: Program Design and Implementation
This domain of ACE practice exam questions represents 31% of the whole exam and around 46 questions in total.
It is generally the largest portion of the exam.
This domain will test your ability for establishing the right health, performance, fitness, and functional goals that are all based on your assessments and data gathered so that your exercise programs can be specific to the client.
Here you will also be tested on the ability to apply the right principles, strategy, and guidelines to exercise so that the clients may improve their muscular strength and power, cardiorespiratory fitness, and flexibility, according to their height, body mass, symptoms, family history, etc.
It is important to have a firm understanding of the equipment and how to integrate the equipment support into your programming for the improvement of function, fitness, health, and performance.
10 Questions and explanations from Domain 2
Which of these is not a benefit of resistance training? A) Increased tensile strength in tendons B) Increased bone mineral density C) Higher cardiac output D) Increased muscle fiber size and contractile strength
The correct answer is C
Reasoning:
For this, we must know the physiological changes that occur when going through muscular training, and this is found throughout chapter 9.
We should start by going through and pointing out the obvious flaws in the questions, and the biggest one is the use of the word cardiac output in C. This is the correct answer.
You can then confirm this by going through the others and seeing that resistance training does actually change the body in the ways specified in answers A, B, and C.
Which of these can be the cause of muscle imbalance? A) Poor exercise technique B) One side dominance C) Structural issues D) All answers are correct
The correct answer is D
Reasoning:
A muscle imbalance is when certain muscles in the body are stronger or more developed than others.
The first answer, A, we should know is right, since poor technique is one of the primary reasons people develop muscle imbalances.
The second answer of one-sided dominance is also right, as when one side is dominant, not only is that a muscle imbalance, but it can also form more imbalances. So, B is also right.
The third answer is also right, as structural issues cause more imbalance in the body. This is seen by how muscles interact at joints, and issues like this. So, C is also correct.
The answer then will be D, as all of them are able to cause imbalances in the muscles.
Above which of these levels is someone exercising using the talk test? A) 9 rating of Perceived Exertion B) First Ventilatory Threshold C) Second Ventilatory Threshold D) Lactate Threshold
The correct answer is B
Reasoning:
This question requires us to know the assessments for the cardiorespiratory fitness section within chapter 8 on cardiorespiratory training. The specific assessment is the talk test and we should have knowledge of the different thresholds.
We can eliminate answer A, as ratings of perceived exertion have almost nothing to do with the talk test, as its too subjective.
Answer D, the lactate threshold is used more in higher intensity tests and typically max effort work, so if we know that, we can eliminate that, as talk test and ventilatory threshold kind of go hand in hand.
Now we must choose between threshold 1 or 2.
The talk test is used as a primary test for when someone is working in the ventilatory threshold one, or the first ventilatory threshold, so the correct answer is going to be B.
How many contacts per session should a client be completing with low-intensity drills if they are at an intermediate level with plyometric training? A) 140 to 200 B) 100 to 150 C) 200 to 220 D) 80 to 100
The correct answer is B
Reasoning:
This question is pure knowledge of the guidelines for training, specifically for plyometric training in this case.
For these styles of questions, it shows that we should really be knowledgable on all guidelines and training styles.
The answer is going to be B, which is 100 – 150 contacts per session for low-intensity drills for intermediate-level clients.
The latissimus dorsi and teres major are the prime moving muscles for which movement? A) Shoulder adduction B) Scapula elevation C) Scapula flexion D) Shoulder abduction
The correct answer is A
Reasoning:
This question should be answered by first thinking of the body part that can be moved by both of the muscles mentioned.
When we take this approach, we can automatically eliminate the scapular elevation and flexion for answers B and C. This is mainly due to the latissimus dorsi not affecting the scapula directly. This leaves the shoulder and the moves of abduction and adduction.
Then we look at our knowledge of what adduction and abduction is.
Abduction is the motion of a structure away from the midline while adduction refer to motion towards the center of the body.
Adduction is the action by which the parts of the body are drawn towards the midline.
Since both of these muscles pull in to the body, they are going to help with the adduction of the shoulder. The correct answer is A.
This question emphasizes the need for knowledge of the anatomy of the human body and the terms of motion we use.
What type of muscle fibers are typically smaller and have more aerobic capacity? A) Slow-twitch B) Type II C) Both a and b D) Fast-twitch
The correct answer is A
Reasoning:
This question looks at the makeup of muscles and the knowledge of the various types of muscle fibers. this information is found throughout chapter 9.
We know that based on the size alone, we should be able to eliminate the fast-twitch and type II fibers, due to their size being greater and the muscles being more easily hypertrophied with training.
If we did not know, then we could look at the aerobic capacity ability. The fast-twitch muscles are known as the anaerobic muscle fibers and thus, they are not going to be aerobic focused. This means the correct answer is for sure A.
What stretching technique should you perform after a 5K interval workout? A) Dynamic and ballistic stretches B) PNF and dynamic stretches C) Myofascial release and static stretches D) Myofascial release and dynamic stretches
The correct answer is C
Reasoning:
We are going to need knowledge of the different forms of flexibility training and the protocol of typical warm-ups. We find this information throughout chapters 8 and 9.
When we look at the answers, we should be able to eliminate the use of ballistic and dynamic stretching off the bat. this is due to these being primarily used for warm-ups going into activity, and not so much as a cool-down.
This leaves us with the correct answer of C, which matches the goal for cool-downs with stretching. We see the use of static and myofascial release as the most beneficial to help with recovery for the muscles and stretching them due to them having just been worked.
Which joint is not responsible for stability? A) Lumbar spine B) Glenohumeral C) Foot D) Knee
The correct answer is B
Reasoning:
This is another question that will look at the anatomy of the human body and specifically to see if you know the joints of the body and their use in the kinetic chain.
The lumbar spine is essential for stability, as it is a primary area in the kinetic chain, but it should also be noted that this is not a joint really. So, A would be removed.
The foot is not specifically a joint also, but it is also needed for stability, so we see C removed from the running.
The knee joint is the last to be removed as it is always used to stabilize the body when standing, for example. So, D is removed.
This leaves B, the glenohumeral joint. The shoulder joint, as it is also called, is not needed for the stability of the body, except for specific times like potentially in a plank.
What training principle would focus on the latissimus dorsi, teres major, biceps, and forearm flexors to improve rope climbing ability? A) Overload B) Reversibility C) Specificity D) Progression
The correct answer is C
Reasoning:
This is a great question that asks you to understand the many principles of training that exist. This is found throughout chapter 9.
A is wrong, as overload is the principle that says that you have to increase the intensity, duration, type, or time of a workout progressively in order to see adaptations.
B is wrong, as reversibility is a concept that states when you stop working out, you lose the effects of training.
D is wrong, as the progression principle states that there is a perfect level of overload in-between a too slow increase and a too rapid increase.
This leaves C, the correct answer, which is Specificity. Even if you did not know the actual definitions, you might be able to infer that specificity, the principle stating you must train for specific results, would be the right answer here.
Women lose about half a pound of muscle per year. At 30 years old, Ashley weighs 130lbs with 25% body fat, which is almost 98 lbs. of lean weight. If Ashley weighs the same at 50 years old, then how many lbs. of body fat will have been gained? A) 30 lbs. of body fat B) 10 lbs. of body fat C) Not enough information is given D) 25 lbs. of body fat
The correct answer is B
Reasoning:
This is a less common type of math question on the Exam, but one you should prepare for.
The question throws the age, weight, and body fat percentages around, and some of them are just there to distract you from the true question.
The question is based on aging and the loss of muscle mass.
The claim is that there is a loss of 0.5 pounds per year of lean mass lost in women like the subject of the question.
You then realize that it is saying she ages by 20 years and stays the same weight.
By making sure to avoid all of the unneeded numbers prior, you get that you should multiply 0.5 by 20 to receive the total mass lost in the twenty years.
0.5 X 20 is going to be 10. So, B is right, and there are 10 pounds of body fat gained, as the lady stayed the same weight throughout the years, while still losing lean mass.
Domain 3: Program Progression and Modification
This domain of ACE-CPT exam practice represents 26% of the whole test and around 39 questions in total.
This domain will go over the knowledge of promotion for adherence to exercise through the use of education, motivation, and modification.
This part of the ACE online practice exam will test you on how well you recognize and respond to the problems in adherence to exercise by taking notice of any barriers and implications or providing options to find a solution for the barriers found.
You will also need to know how to evaluate the progress of your clients with the use of observations, data, and client feedback in order to modify the programs. Thus, the client relationship is important.
10 Questions and explanations from Domain 3
A client is walking on a treadmill at 4.0 mph and on a grade of 5%. Fifteen minutes into the workout, you are asking her questions about how she feels. Your client only answers with 3-4 words comfortably. What training zone are they likely in? A) Training zone 3 B) Training zone 2 C) Between zone 1 and 2 D) Training zone 1
The correct answer is B
Reasoning:
This question requires us to know the talk test and the different training zones used in chapter 8. It also throws out some numbers that are somewhat there only to distract you, as the mph walking and the graded percent of the walk could be very dependent on the person working.
So, for this question, we look at when the talk test is found to be in use, and the client is able to utter 3-4 words easily. So, it is likely they are in training zone 2, as they answered with just 3-4 words and stopped.
It is an assumption seeing as training zone 1 would have comfortable conversations in general, and training zone 3 would have probable gasps between words or sentences.
So, the correct answer is B.
A client who is recovering from a stroke. They have clearance from her physician and recommendations to use a recumbent bike and to work on balance exercises. How long should her activities last? A) 30 minutes with rest periods B) 10-15 minutes with no rest C) 3 – 5 minutes with rest periods D) 20 minutes with no rest
The correct answer is C Reasoning: For this question, we look at clients who have been through a stroke and are just cleared for return or start of activity. This is going to be from chapter 13 on clients with chronic disease, as strokes do affect people in the long term.
We need to know the guidelines that ar in place for this cerebrovascular disorder.
The guidelines in this chapter for stroke patients see the physical activity recommended as lasting 3-5 minutes at a time, and then a notable rest period put between bursts of activity.
The correct answer is C.
Your client has properly performed a bilateral chest press from a seated position without making contact with a backrest after 4 weeks of training. What is the next progression of this movement? A) A seated single-arm press B) A standing press with a split-stance C) A single-arm press with an ipsilateral stance D) A single-arm press with a contralateral stance
The correct answer is B
Reasoning:
This question looks at the common progressions of muscular training movements. We need to recognize where the client is based ontheir current movement ability, and then know what movement would be the logical step forward to advance the training without going too far.
This client is using both arms to perform a press without using the back of the seat, thus enabling their core to work more to press the weight.
A single-arm seated press could be one progression, although it is likely not the best answer since single arm work is usually done later. So, A is out.
Then we have two other single-arm movements, but they are even more advanced than the seated one, due to their use of standing poses. So, this will remove both answers C and D.
That leaves the correct answer as B. This is due to standing being the natural progression for mastering exercise while seated, and the slit stance being easier than other standing stances.
Which of these are a positive progression in functional movement and resistance training? A) Standing two-arm cable press to Shoulder bridge B) Woodchop to Pelvic tilts C) Lunges to Wall sits D) Plank to Prone lies on a stability ball with torso movements
The correct answer is D
Reasoning:
This question looks at you knowledge of movements and exercises, and the ability to decipher how to progress them.
We can start off by eliminating both A and B, as they are exercises that have nothing to do with each other and can’t be in the same line of progressions or regressions.
When we look at C, we should notice that usually people will move from the wall sits to lunges at some point, instead of the other way around. So, these are in the wrong order, and possibly in the other order, they would still be too big of a direct progression.
The correct answer, D, has the plank getting more advanced by doing the move on a stability ball and adding in a movement to an otherwise isometric stable exercise. This makes it a natural positive progression to a functional movement.
Using the SAID principle, what would be implied to meet your client’s goals if they want to run a half-marathon? A) Goals should include muscular hypertrophy. B) The program should involve at least 3 days of speed work. C) The program should progress to mimic the demands of the activity. D) There should be different intensities that stress both the aerobic and anaerobic systems.
The correct answer is C
Reasoning:
The SAID principle is another way to state the principle of specificity in training.
This stands for Specific Adaptations to Imposed Demands. basically, the way we train will benefit specific energy systems and muscle groups for specific activities.
For the goal of training to inevitably be the running of a half-marathon, we would need to have the training involve endurance, so we can disregard answer A.
D has both of the energy systems being worked, thus not going into the specificity of training, so it is wrong. And B also has no specificity for marathon running.
This leaves the correct answer of C, which is a restatement of the SAID principle honestly.
Carson has been resistance training with you for a month. He has been performing sets of 10-15 reps on the leg press. You have been gradually increasing the exercise workload, and he can currently perform 15 leg presses per set with 200 lbs. What is the best way to progress? A) Increase the number of reps per set to 20. B) Decrease the number of reps to 10. C) Increase the resistance to 210 lbs. D) Increase the resistance to 220 lbs.
The correct answer is C
Reasoning:
For this question, we should know the progressions for muscular training found throughout chapter 9.
Answer A is unlikely to be what the client wants, as this takes them out of their hypertrophy rep range they have been using and enters the endurance range.
Answer B takes out overload, as the client is already able to do 15 reps with 200, so 10 would not progress the training.
Answer D asks the increase in resistance to be too extreme as we know the progressions should be done in 5 – 10 pound increments when progressing muscular training.
The correct answer is then going to be C, as this increases the weight by 10 pounds, which is in the recommended range. This is likely to decrease the reps done and allow the client to progress reps more before increasing the weight again.
What do you do if a client is asking for supplement advice? A) Refer the client to a registered dietitian or qualified physician for further guidance. B) Advise your client on only the supplements you are knowledgeable about. C) Refer the client to a nutritionist store. D) Show the client only the supplements your gym carries.
The correct answer is A
Reasoning:
This deals with the Scope of practice for the trainer and ensuring that you understand the do’s and don’t’s of an ACE trainer.
Answer B, has the trainer giving advice for the supplements to use, which is a form of specific nutrition advice, and this should be avoided.
Answer C has the trainer referring someone to a nutrition store instead of a professional, which is not what we should do.
Answer D has you giving advice based on things that may only benefit you or the gym you work at, thus not giving good help to the client. This would be appropriate had they asked you about the specific things the gym offers.
The correct answer is A, as this has the trainer staying in the scope of practice by referring them to a professional nutrition person.
A diabetic client has been screened thoroughly by his physician and has clearance to exercise. The blood glucose level should be measured before and after each exercise session. When should the exercise session be postponed? A) If the pre-exercise blood glucose level is above 300 mg/dL B) If the pre-exercise blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL C) If the pre-exercise blood glucose level is below 100 mg/dL D) Both a and c
The correct answer is D
Reasoning:
This question looks at our knowledge on the blood glucose levels and the guidelines that are set for diabetic clients for their safety in exercise.
The blood glucose level is important to monitor for these clients, as it poses many health risks if they exercise with a blood glucose level that is too low or too high.
For these clients, we specifically should stop exercise when the blood glucose level is above 300 mg/dL and also below 100 mg/dL.
The correct answer here is going to be D, as it includes both A and C.
Which of these is recommended for exercises for youth resistance training? A) One to three sets of each resistance exercise B) Resistance that permits six to 15 reps C) Resistance increases of 5% – 10% increments D) All answers are correct
The correct answer is D
Reasoning:
This question asks you to know the guidelines for training the youth population in resistance training, and this is found in chapter 14.
The answer to this one is going to be D, because as we go through A, B, and C, we find that all three of them are recommended features of the guidelines for youth training.
This is a common set of answers where they trick you by listing one you may know for sure immediately and quickly answer instead of looking into all of the answers.
What phase of the healing process is someone in if they suffered an injury and are showing signs of pain, redness and swelling? A) Phase 1-inflammation B) Phase 3-maturation and remodeling C) Phase 4-rehabilitation D) Phase 2-fibrolastic
The correct answer is A
Reasoning:
This question looks at the phases of healing for common injuries to the body.
If we know the phases, we can automatically eliminate both C and D, as there is no phase 4, and phase 2 is not the fibrolastic phase.
We then should recognize pain, redness, and swelling as initial signs of injury, and thus present for the phase one of inflammation. This means that the answer is A.
Domain 4: Professional Conduct, Safety and Risk Management
This portion of the ACE certification practice exam represents the smallest percentage at 20%.
There will be about 30 questions in total here.
Here, the ACE certification exam practice questions test you on your abilities in the application of risk management strategies while following the many guidelines, standards, laws, and regulations for the protection of your client and yourself.
It is important to know how to secure the client’s general information, communicate with the client, and progress the client while following through with confidentiality and liability.
You should have knowledge of preventing injuries and finding the possible hazards in training.
10 Questions and explanations from Domain 4
Which of these is considered within your scope of practice if a client wishes to lose 10 lbs.? A) Explain some of the best diets on the market B) Show the client how to read nutrition labels C) Outline a dietary weight loss program D) All of these
The correct answer is D
Reasoning:
This looks at the scope of practice and what we should do and are able to legally do with clients.
A is in the scope of practice since explaining diets and not giving recommendations is an ideal way to help a client and stay in the trainer’s scope of practice.
B is also good for the scope of practice since showing someone how to read and understand a nutrition label is specifically a way trainers should help clients wishing to lose weight.
C is also in the scope of practice as outlines are not too specific for a client to be considered outside of the scope of practice.
So, the correct answer is going to be D for all of the answers are right.
From the perspective of the trainer what would be an advantage of the direct-employee model? A) Employers pay for all equipment and the rest of the expenses of the facility. B) Per-session fees are often lower than normal C) Employers may need a minimum number of hours of work for the trainer D) Trainers need to conform to the grooming standards of the employer.
The correct answer is A
Reasoning:
This looks at the differences in being employed and being a contractor for a company. This is covered throughout chapter 16.
B is wrong, as the fees are usually higher than normal since the company needs to also be paid for the session, and it will likely cost the client more.
C is not necessarily true, nor is it an advantage for sure.
D is a potential negative that exists for trainers that are employees of a company. It would not specifically be an advantage at all.
The correct answer is A, as the biggest advantage a trainer has when they are employed, is that the expenses of the equipment are covered for them, making it easier to train clients.
Your client has hypoglycemia. When is the best time to schedule his exercise? A) He should exercise in the morning before a meal. B) He should exercise in the evening before a meal. C) He should never exercise. D) He should exercise in the morning after a meal.
The correct answer is D
Reasoning:
Hypoglycemia is a condition in which your blood sugar (glucose) level is lower than normal. As far as scheduling workouts, we should rely on the time in which the blood glucose level will be the most normal.
D is going to be the correct answer, as we should plan exercise after a meal for sure, and then preferably at a time where we know they will replenish their low blood sugar that results from exercise also.
Which of these scenarios would be considered negligence? A) You don’t allow a client to exercise without clearance from a physician because they are undergoing radiation for cancer and they are anemic. B) You monitor a client’s exercise intensity with the Karvonen method. They take beta-blockers and are hypertensive. C) A client who is currently recovering from hip replacement is now cleared for exercise. You focus your training on hip/leg abduction, strengthening, and lateral movements D) You recommend to a diabetic client that you will monitor their blood glucose levels prior to and after exercising.
The correct answer is B
Reasoning:
This question looks at your knowledge of the personal trainer’s scope of practice and the guidelines for special population training.
We can start off by eliminating A because physician clearance should always be obtained when working with a client who has that level of health issue. This would be considered proper scope of practice.
Answer B is the correct answer. Clients with hypertension should be taught to use the RPE scale to self-monitor their intensity.
Answer C is also within your scope of practice because the client has already been cleared for exercise.
Answer D is also incorrect, as monitoring blood glucose before and after exercise is recommended for diabetic clients
Which of these is associated with an independent contractor versus an employee? A) Oversees fitness center procedures. B) Receives account payment specific to job duties performed. C) Receives health benefits from the fitness center. D) Receives training from the fitness center.
The correct answer is B
Reasoning:
This is found in chapter 16, and it looks at the different employment types of independent contractors and employees.
Employees are going to be regular workers that the employer hires, while independent contractors are people that are hired in the short term to perform specified tasks.
When we look through the answers, answers A, C, and D all are features of being employed through a company and working at a facility that way. employees have health benefits usually, they get trained through the facility, and they must oversee the center’s procedures.
The correct answer is B, as this is almost the exact thing that independent contractors are hired for. Specific tasks and duties.
Which statement is inaccurate regarding Degenerative Disc Disease? A) It is more common in the thoracic spine. B) The intervertebral disc gradually gets worn down and eventually degenerates. C) It occurs between the fourth and fifth lumbar vertebrae. D) It occurs in individuals between the age of 30 and 50.
The correct answer is C
Reasoning:
This is a typical question style we see where it regards a very specific disorder of some kind and the information in it. So, in this, we need to know a good amount of information about each of the main diseases throughout the book and chapter 13 primarily for illnesses like this.
The best way to answer it when you don’t truly know is by weeding out the answers that are for sure accurate, as you are looking for the inaccurate one here.
Answers A, B, and D are all very general in reference to degenerative disc disease, so it may be easy to see that C is likely the correct answer initially.
The correct answer of C says it only occurs between the 4th and 5th lumbar vertebrae, and since degenerative disc disease is not near as specific as that, it is safe to assume C as the answer.
Upon approaching a client who is unconscious and non-responsive, what should you check and in which order? A) Breathing, airway, and circulation B) Airway, circulation, and breathing C) Airway, breathing, and circulation D) Circulation, breathing, and airway
The correct answer is C
Reasoning:
This is something that will accompany certifications like CPR and AED or other emergency training from the textbook.
It is important to also have knowledge of all of these scenarios and how to respond as a trainer. For this, it is important that we use the links to the emergency protocols that are in chapter 16 in the book.
The exam also tries to mess you up by simply mixing the order up.
The best way to remember this one specifically is by knowing ABC for the order. Using this, the correct answer is C, Airway, Breathing, and Circulation.
Which of these would mean a plaintiff’s case would be dismissed in favor of the trainer? A) The defendant doesn’t keep up the standard of care required for that duty. B) Harm or injury was caused by a breach of duty by the defendant C) Harm or injury to the plaintiff did not occur. D) The defendant was required to protect the plaintiff from injury.
The correct answer is C
Reasoning:
A lot of trainers do no think of the law and legal side unless it is the scope of practice, but really it is just as important to go over this side for the exam and for training after certification especially.
This legal information is found in chapter 16 of the textbook.
If we look through the chapter and understand what makes up and substantiates a negligence charge, we see that four elements must be established:
The defendant had a duty to protect the plaintiff…
The defendant failed to uphold the standard of care necessary to perform the duty…
Damage or injury to the plaintiff had occurred…
And the damage or injury was caused by the defendant’s breach of duty.
So, with this, we see that the correct answer is C, as there needs to be harm or injury to the plaintiff for the charge to be in favor of the defendant and against the trainer.
Which of these presents a safety hazard? A) Allowing a client’s friend to watch their session B) Allowing a client to finish their set while you leave C) A client stopping the treadmill to get a drink of water D) A client who is wearing old tennis shoes and a torn t-shirt
The correct answer is B
Reasoning:
These questions look at how you view a scenario and what you should do as a trainer. A is wrong, as allowing a client’s friend to watch their session is completely ok as long as your client is good with it.
C is wrong, as it is exactly what you should do for your client when they are thirsty. exercise should stop and they should get water when needed.
D is wrong, as it is not for sure a safety concern to wear older clothing.
The correct answer is B, because a trainer should never leave their client out of view when they are training them. This goes against the code of ethics and what you are taught as a trainer. It is the trainer’s job to be there for the session.
Which of these modifications should you recommend for a client with carpal tunnel syndrome? A) Movements should involve full wrist extension. B) Movements should not involve stretching finger flexors and extensors. C) Movements should involve full wrist flexion. D) Movements should focus on the mid-range positions of wrist flexion and extension.
The correct answer is D
Reasoning:
This is a question looking at chronic diseases mentioned throughout chapter 13. Carpel tunnel syndrome is a condition that causes numbness, tingling, or weakness in your hand.
Like many chronic conditions, it is something that will affect the person and how they exercise and respond to programs. It is also something we can possibly help or hurt with our programming.
With many of these chronic conditions, we should be looking for modifications to help the exercise for individuals.
The correct answer to D. All of these answers are very specific and they show that we should know a good amount of info regarding the main chronic conditions.
The Randomized 40-Question Practice ACE Exam
Below is a comprehensive free ACE personal trainer practice exam randomized into 40 questions.
The more ACE personal training practice questions and topics you are exposed to, the more likely you’ll be confident in your ability to pass your ACE-CPT.
Let’s ace your ACE!
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ACE-CPT Practice Exam FAQs
How can I register for the ACE Exam?
All candidates should register for the computer-based online testing through the website or by phone. Prior to registration, you must have proof of a current CPR and AED certification that is valid at least through your testing period but will need to be redone in order to become a trainer.
How much does the ACE-CPT exam cost?
For computer-based testing for the US and Canada-based trainers, the cost is 399$ for your first time taking the test. If you were to need to retake the test, the cost is 199$ after that first attempt. When you go for a second ACE certification, the cost is 199$ for testing. Rescheduling costs are going to be 149$.
What are the eligibility requirements for the CPT exam?
To take the ACE Personal Trainer exam, the individual must meet the qualifications of: -At least 18 years old -Must have a CPR and AED certificate -Must present a current government-issued photo ID with signature -Must have completed high school
What are the benefits that come with computer-based testing?
Computer-based testing is beneficial as there are more than 500 testing centers across the united states and Canada, so it is easy to find a location usually. This style of testing also allows for the test takers to receive their score immediately upon completing the exam.
When can I register for a computer-based exam?
Computer-based testing is beneficial as there are more than 500 testing centers across the united states and Canada, so it is easy to find a location usually.
What do I do if I need special accommodations?
People who require special accommodations will be generally accommodated. There are limitations that exist for third-party testing such as this, so it is important to contact examregistration@ACEfitness.org. You can find more contact information on their Instagram profile and LinkedIn as well.
What happens after my exam registration is done?
After you have had your time and date confirmed by the location, you should receive a notification via email and are then able to download the printable ticket for admission to testing. It is important that you ensure you have this admission ticket and your ID with a signature and a photo that matches the information you signed up with. You cannot enter the course without this.
What if I want to cancel my exam?
Cancellation should be made outside of 30 days from confirmed testing dates and this will allow you to receive a 50% refund on the exam fee. Once a voucher has been made for the exam, a refund is not possible. This also goes for rescheduled exams. Some exceptions to this policy for exams may be considered, but it is case by case like the rescheduling conflicts. You should again email the ace registration team at [email protected].
What other study resources do you suggest for the ACE exam?
Our paid guides at Trainer Academy are highly recommended for the ACE exam, but if you are looking for some more courses, you can’t go wrong with PTPioneer. They have everything from flashcards to ace exam practice questions to help you with your course attempts.
Having access to the ACE certifcation exam practice questions also increases the chances of passing your final exam on the first attempt without repetitions, so it values your time.
Take full advantage of this free ACE practice exam, as well as any other related study materials and tips, and your personal development will thrive.
It’s also worth sharing that diversifying your skills will increase your overall personal trainer salary.
The field of fitness and wellness and maximizing performance score is always expanding, hence why the personal trainer job outlook is expected tocontinue to flourish.
The Trainer Academy staff is a group of certified personal trainers, nutrition coaches, strength and conditioning coaches, and other Fitness Experts. Combined, we hold credentials from the top certifying agencies such as the NSCA, NASM, ACE, ISSA, ACSM, NSCF, and more.
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